NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. Over a patient's lifespan, how does the pulse rate change?
- A. starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages.
- B. starts out slower and increases as the patient ages.
- C. varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan.
- D. stays consistent from birth to death.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the pulse rate starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. In infants, the normal pulse rate is around 140 beats per minute, which then falls to an average of 80 beats per minute in adults. As individuals age, their pulse rate tends to decrease due to changes in cardiovascular function. Choice B is incorrect as the pulse rate typically decreases with age, rather than increases. Choice C is incorrect as there is a general trend of decreasing pulse rate as individuals age, rather than a continuous variation. Choice D is incorrect as the pulse rate does change over a patient's lifespan, starting fast in infants and decreasing as they age.
2. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind regarding the use of side rails for a confused patient?
- A. A person of small stature is at increased risk for injury from entrapment.
- B. A history of a previous fall from a bed with raised side rails is significant.
- C. The desire to prevent a patient from wandering is not sufficient reason for the use of side rails.
- D. Creative use of alternative measures indicates respect for the patient's dignity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When considering the use of side rails for a confused patient, it is crucial for the nurse to understand that individuals of small stature are at a higher risk for injury from entrapment. Studies have shown that people of small stature are more likely to slip through or between the side rails, making them vulnerable to harm. It is essential to prioritize patient safety and avoid potential risks associated with entrapment. Conversely, a history of previous falls from a bed with raised side rails is significant as it indicates a heightened risk for future serious incidents. The desire to prevent a patient from wandering alone does not justify the use of side rails; instead, alternative measures should be creatively employed to respect the patient's dignity and avoid more serious fall-related injuries.
3. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
4. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
5. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?
- A. The client is placed face-down
- B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
- C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
- D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.
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