Nursing Elites

1. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?

• A. 70-80 mmHg
• B. 100-120 mmHg
• C. 150-170 mmHg
• D. 200 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.

2. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?

• A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
• B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
• C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
• D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.

3. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

4. The client is being prepared for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). What information does the client need to know about the purpose of this catheter insertion?

• A. Stroke volume
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Venous pressure
• D. Left ventricular functioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Left ventricular functioning. The purpose of inserting a pulmonary artery catheter is to obtain information about left ventricular functioning when the catheter balloon is inflated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a pulmonary artery catheter can provide information on stroke volume, cardiac output, and venous pressure, its primary purpose is to assess left ventricular function.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

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