NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?
- A. 70-80 mmHg
- B. 100-120 mmHg
- C. 150-170 mmHg
- D. 200 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.
2. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?
- A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
- B. A high WBC count and manic activity
- C. A low WBC count and manic activity
- D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.
3. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
- A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.
- B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases.
- C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer.
- D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's disclosure of having multiple sex partners and uncertainty about the baby's father indicates a potential high risk for HIV. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. Early detection of HIV is crucial for initiating timely treatment and improving outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as HIV screening takes precedence over testing for other sexually transmitted diseases, discussing cervical cancer risk, or referring to a family planning clinic.
4. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment finding should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider?
- A. Patient is claustrophobic.
- B. Patient is allergic to shellfish.
- C. Patient recently used a bronchodilator inhaler.
- D. Patient is not able to remove a wedding band.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is allergic to shellfish. This is crucial because the contrast media used in CT scans is iodine-based, and individuals with iodine allergies, such as those allergic to shellfish, are at risk of adverse reactions. It is important to identify and address this allergy to prevent potential complications. The other options do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of the CT scan with contrast media. Claustrophobia can be managed with patient support, the recent use of a bronchodilator inhaler does not typically affect the CT procedure, and not being able to remove a wedding band is not a critical concern for the scan itself.
5. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
- B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
- C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
- D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access