NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?
- A. 70-80 mmHg
- B. 100-120 mmHg
- C. 150-170 mmHg
- D. 200 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.
2. The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two (2) hours ago. The nurse should
- A. Place a call to the client's healthcare provider for instructions
- B. Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
- C. Reassure the client's wife that the symptoms are transient
- D. Instruct the client's wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with concerning symptoms of lethargy and confusion after a fall. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying issue, such as a head injury or internal bleeding. The nurse's priority is to ensure the client receives immediate evaluation and treatment to prevent any further harm. Option B is the correct choice as it emphasizes the urgency of the situation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the critical nature of the client's condition. Contacting the healthcare provider, reassuring the wife, or waiting for symptoms to worsen could delay necessary medical intervention.
3. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer both drugs.
- B. Administer the spironolactone.
- C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
- D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?
- A. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.
- B. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
- C. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
- D. I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.
5. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
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