Nursing Elites

1. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

• A. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily
• B. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
• C. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
• D. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.

2. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

• A. Increased anticoagulant use
• B. Increased risk of falls
• C. Brain atrophy
• D. Inconsistent care giving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

3. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?

• A. Intercostal retractions
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
• D. Decreased venous O2 pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.

4. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
• B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
• C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
• D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.

5. When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?

• A. Weak cough effort
• B. Barrel-shaped chest
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilateral crackles at lung bases indicate a potential acute issue like heart failure. Immediate action is necessary in this situation. The nurse should conduct further assessments such as oxygen saturation and inform the healthcare provider promptly. A barrel-shaped chest and hyperresonance to percussion are typical signs of aging and do not require immediate action. A weak cough effort is common in older patients due to age-related changes, and dry mucous membranes are also expected in older individuals. While these findings may warrant further evaluation, they do not demand immediate action like bilateral crackles at lung bases.

Similar Questions