Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis does not respond to treatment.
• B. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is caused by a psychiatric problem.
• C. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis requires surgical intervention to improve the problem.
• D. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is usually outgrown without therapeutic intervention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.

2. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, weight gain
• B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, fever
• C. Hypertension, weight loss, proteinuria
• D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.

3. A fragile 87-year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (Complete Blood Count)
• B. ECG (Electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid Function Tests
• D. CT Scan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A CT scan is most likely to be performed in this scenario. A CT scan would be done to further investigate the cause of the left hemiparesis. Noncontrast CT scanning is commonly used in the acute evaluation of patients with suspected acute stroke to assess for ischemic changes or hemorrhage in the brain. While a CBC may provide information on blood cell counts and general health status, it is not the primary test for evaluating hemiparesis. An ECG is used to assess heart function and rhythm, which is not the main concern in this case. Thyroid function tests evaluate thyroid hormone levels and are not typically the initial tests for evaluating hemiparesis and confusion.

4. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

• A. Decrease in level of consciousness
• B. Loss of bladder control
• C. Altered sensation to stimuli
• D. Emotional lability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.

5. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?

• A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
• B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
• C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
• D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.

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