Nursing Elites

1. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?

• A. Left-sided pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Right-sided pneumothorax

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.

2. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement?

• A. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year.
• B. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough.
• C. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise.
• D. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.' It is crucial for patients who have undergone a lung transplant to be vigilant about any signs of infection or rejection. A low-grade fever can be an early indicator of such complications, requiring immediate medical attention. While annual follow-up visits are necessary, they are not sufficient for monitoring acute changes in health post-transplant. Stopping prednisone abruptly can lead to rejection and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance. Feeling short of breath with exercise should be reported as it can indicate potential issues. Recognizing and addressing symptoms promptly is key to successful post-transplant care, and in this case, calling the healthcare provider immediately for a fever is the most appropriate action.

3. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

• A. A cerebral vascular accident
• B. Postoperative meningitis
• C. Medication reaction
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

4. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

• A. Normotensive
• B. Prehypertension
• C. Stage I hypertension
• D. Stage II hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.

5. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
• B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
• C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
• D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.

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