Nursing Elites

1. Mr. Freeman has difficulty getting out of bed. The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to ______________.

• A. ask for assistance before getting out of bed.
• B. remain in bed because it is safer and he will not fall.
• C. instruct him to stand up quickly from the bed.
• D. lean forward and push up and off the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to use his call bell and ask for assistance before getting out of bed. This can prevent him from falling. Patients should not stay in bed; they should be encouraged to get out of bed as much as possible to prevent complications like pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. Instructing a patient to stand up quickly from the bed is unsafe as it can lead to dizziness and falls. Similarly, leaning forward and pushing off the bed can increase the risk of falls and should be avoided. Asking for assistance is the safest and most appropriate option to ensure patient safety and prevent accidents.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
• B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
• C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
• D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.

5. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

Similar Questions