NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
2. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?
- A. 'There are so many children up for adoption, looking for a mother.'
- B. 'This must feel so difficult for you. Children are really important to you?'
- C. This must feel so difficult for you. Although Children should not be important to you.'
- D. Believe me when I tell you that kids are so difficult to raise"?you're better off without them.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.
3. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?
- A. Instruct in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique to change the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.
4. A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?
- A. Implement suicide precautions.
- B. Frequently offer high-calorie snacks and fluids.
- C. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths.
- D. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.
5. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
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