Nursing Elites

1. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

• A. Schizophrenia
• B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
• C. Bipolar disorder
• D. Delusional disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

2. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

3. Which type of toy would be most suitable for enhancing the development of a toddler-age client?

• A. Clay
• B. Rattle
• C. Video games
• D. Musical mobile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most suitable toy to recommend for enhancing the development of a toddler-age child is clay. Clay promotes creativity and fine motor skills in toddlers. A rattle is typically recommended for infants as it aids in sensory development. Video games, which are often battery-operated, are not suitable for toddlers due to potential negative effects on development. A musical mobile is more appropriate for infants as it can aid in soothing and sensory stimulation.

4. Which method is used to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD)?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Flushing the line with heparin
• C. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency
• D. Chest fluoroscopy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD) is a chest x-ray. This is crucial to detect any potential complications such as pneumothorax, which can occur during subclavian vein catheter insertion. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include shortness of breath and anxiety. Flushing the line with heparin is not used for placement verification, but rather for maintaining patency after verification. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency is done after placement is confirmed, not for initial verification. Chest fluoroscopy may be used during the insertion process but is not typically employed for placement verification.

5. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

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