Nursing Elites

1. During the beginning phase of a therapeutic relationship, why is a clear understanding of participants' roles important?

• A. Understanding what will be discussed
• B. Knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful
• C. Knowing what to expect from the relationship
• D. Preparing for termination of the relationship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapeutic relationship, having a clear understanding of participants' roles is crucial as it helps in defining the structure and boundaries of the relationship. This clarity assists in setting expectations and establishing a framework for interaction, allowing the client to focus on the therapeutic process rather than on uncertainties regarding their role or the nurse's role. Option A, understanding what will be discussed, is important but not directly related to defining roles. Option B, knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful, is about the intent of the nurse rather than the roles of the participants. Option D, preparing for termination of the relationship, is premature in the beginning phase and not directly related to understanding roles.

2. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
• B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
• C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.

3. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use a nicotine patch.
• B. Reassure the client that it is almost time for another break.
• C. Have the client leave the unit with another staff member.
• D. Review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks and provide concrete information about the schedule. Suggesting a nicotine patch (Option A) is not suitable as the client wants to smoke. Reassuring the client about another break (Option B) does not address the client's frustration and does not promote effective communication. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Option C) is not appropriate as it goes against unit rules and does not address the client's concerns. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client to provide clarity and address the client's frustration effectively.

4. What is the similarity between the stage-crisis theory proposed by Havighurst and the psychosocial development theory formulated by Erikson?

• A. Based on developmental tasks
• B. Incorporate eight stages of development
• C. Based on changes in a person's thoughts and emotions
• D. Emphasize that a child's growth is directed by individual gene activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both Havighurst's stage-crisis theory and Erikson's psychosocial development theory are grounded in the concept of developmental tasks. They both emphasize that successful completion of specific tasks at various life stages is crucial for healthy development. While Erikson's theory consists of eight stages of psychosocial development, Havighurst's theory comprises six stages. The idea that a child's growth is guided by individual gene activity is attributed to Gesell's theory, not Havighurst or Erikson. The emphasis on changes in a person's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors shaping beliefs about morality aligns with moral development theory, not specifically with Havighurst's or Erikson's theories.

5. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

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