NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. Intermittent fevers are:
- A. fevers which come and go.
- B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
- C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.
2. What is the most effective step in hand washing?
- A. Using friction to remove potential pathogens.
- B. Using hospital-grade soap.
- C. Moisturizing the hands after washing to prevent cracking.
- D. Washing hands with soap for at least 15 seconds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective step in hand washing is using friction to remove potential pathogens. While using soap, moisturizing hands, and washing for a sufficient duration are important aspects of hand hygiene, the mechanical action of rubbing hands together with friction is crucial in dislodging and removing dirt, debris, and potential pathogens. Hospital-grade soap may be beneficial, but the physical act of friction is key to effective hand washing. Moisturizing after washing is important for skin health but not the most effective step in the hand washing process. Simply washing hands for a specific duration, such as 15 seconds, without proper friction may not effectively remove contaminants. Therefore, using friction for thorough cleaning is the most crucial step in hand washing.
3. A patient's blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. The patient asks the nurse, "What do the numbers mean?"? Which is the best reply by the nurse?
- A. "The numbers are within the normal range and are nothing to worry about."?
- B. "The bottom number is the diastolic pressure and reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes."?
- C. "The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts."?
- D. "The concept of blood pressure can be complex. The primary thing to be concerned about is the top number, or the systolic blood pressure."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole. The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction. The nurse should answer the patient's question in terms they can understand and not just say it is normal and there is nothing to worry about. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in the vessels when the heart is at rest, not the stroke volume. Both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are important. Choice A is incorrect as providing a vague reassurance does not address the patient's query. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the diastolic pressure as reflecting stroke volume, which is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the explanation, focusing solely on the top number without providing a complete understanding of blood pressure.
4. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions?
- A. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman
- B. Stroke
- C. Heart attack
- D. Migraine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. The acronym FAST is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The letters stand for Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. This mnemonic helps in identifying facial drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulties, and the importance of time in seeking emergency care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the FAST acronym specifically pertains to stroke recognition, not the onset of labor, heart attacks, or migraines.
5. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Push hard
- B. Push fast
- C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
- D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.
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