Nursing Elites

1. In educating clients on ways to manage pain, which topic can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN who will continue under supervision?

• A. Acupuncture
• B. Guided Imagery
• C. Alternating Rest/Activity
• D. Over-the-counter medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alternating Rest/Activity.' This topic falls within the nursing scope of practice and is typically covered in the training and education of all nurses, including LPN/LVNs. Educating clients on alternating rest and activity is safe, straightforward, and a standard non-pharmacological pain management strategy. Acupuncture (Choice A) and Guided Imagery (Choice B) involve specific skills and techniques that are typically outside the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Over-the-counter medications (Choice D) may require additional assessment, monitoring, and considerations that are beyond the usual delegation for LPN/LVNs.

2. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
• B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
• C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
• D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.

3. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?

• A. Vertigo
• B. Hypotension
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nagging, dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.

4. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair. Which statement should the nurse make to the mother?

• A. You should use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle.
• B. You need to use a plastic spoon to feed the child.
• C. You can allow the child to use a pacifier but only for 30 minutes at a time.
• D. You need to monitor the child's temperature for signs of infection using an oral thermometer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a cleft palate repair, it is crucial to use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle to feed them appropriately. The mother should be instructed to give the child baby food or baby food mixed with water. It is important to avoid introducing straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers into the child's mouth for 7 to 10 days post-surgery to prevent complications. The use of a pacifier should be avoided for at least 2 weeks following the surgical repair to promote proper healing. Additionally, taking oral temperatures should be avoided, and alternative temperature monitoring methods should be utilized to reduce the risk of infection. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect because they could potentially lead to complications or hinder the child's recovery after cleft palate repair.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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