NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?
- A. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
- B. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
- C. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
- D. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.
2. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
- A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
- B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
- C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
3. A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.
- B. I will call the physician if he becomes dizzy or overly fussy.
- C. He will need to wash his hands a lot to keep this from spreading.
- D. I'll watch to see when he stops having diarrhea stools.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.
4. Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?
- A. Administer hypotonic solutions
- B. Keep the head of the bed elevated
- C. Increase the client's core body temperature to 99.9 degrees
- D. Administer corticosteroids as ordered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.
5. A teacher brings a 5-year-old child to the school nurse because of a bruise under her eye. When asked about the bruise, the child responds, 'my daddy did it.' What is the nurse's initial action in this situation?
- A. Allow the child to return to class and monitor for future events that are suggestive of abuse
- B. Call the parent and request an explanation for the bruises
- C. Call the police and ask for a warrant for the parent's arrest
- D. Notify the school administrator
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of suspected child abuse, the priority for the school nurse is to notify the school administrator immediately. The school administrator can then collaborate with the nurse to follow established protocols for reporting suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities. All suspicions or allegations of child abuse must be handled with sensitivity and in compliance with state laws and school policies. All other options, such as allowing the child to return to class without further action, directly contacting the parent, or involving the police without proper investigation, could potentially compromise the safety and well-being of the child and may not adhere to legal requirements for reporting suspected abuse.
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