NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. During the examination, it is often appropriate to offer some brief teaching about the patient's body or the examiner's findings. Which one of these statements by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. "Your atrial dysrhythmias are under control."?
- B. "You have pitting edema and mild varicosities."?
- C. "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range."?
- D. "I'm using my stethoscope to listen for any crackles, wheezes, or rubs in your lungs."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an examination, providing brief educational information to the patient can enhance rapport, as long as the patient can comprehend the terminology. The most appropriate statement from the nurse is "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range." This statement conveys a vital sign in a way that is likely understandable to the patient. Choices A, B, and D use terminology that may be unfamiliar or confusing to the patient. Option A mentions 'atrial dysrhythmias,' which might not be clear to the patient. Option B involves terms like 'pitting edema' and 'varicosities,' which could be unfamiliar to the patient. Option D references 'crackles,' 'wheezes,' and 'rubs,' which might not be easily understood by the patient.
2. The categories such as ethnicity, gender, and religion illustrate which concept?
- A. Family
- B. Cultures
- C. Spirituality
- D. Subcultures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Within cultures, various groups of people share different beliefs, values, and attitudes due to factors such as ethnicity, religion, education, occupation, age, and gender. When these distinct groups coexist within a broader culture, they are referred to as subcultures. While ethnicity, gender, and religion are important components of individuals' identities, they do not represent the concepts of family, cultures, or spirituality. The correct answer is 'Subcultures' as these categories reflect differences within a larger cultural context, emphasizing the unique characteristics shared by members of subcultural groups.
3. A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What potential problem associated with dysphagia has the greatest influence on the plan of care?
- A. Anorexia
- B. Aspiration
- C. Self-care deficit
- D. Inadequate intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a person experiences dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the greatest concern is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food or fluids enter the trachea and lungs instead of going down the esophagus. This can lead to serious complications such as choking, airway obstruction, and aspiration pneumonia. Anorexia (Choice A) refers to a loss of appetite, which is not the primary concern with dysphagia. Self-care deficit (Choice C) and inadequate intake (Choice D) are important considerations but do not have as direct an impact on the immediate safety and health risks associated with aspiration in dysphagia.
4. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?
- A. Gloves and face mask
- B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
- C. Eye protection and shoe covers
- D. Splash shield and face mask
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.
5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
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