Nursing Elites

1. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:

• A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
• B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
• C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
• D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Claudication is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease where there is an inadequate supply of oxygen to the muscles due to reduced blood flow. This mismatch between oxygen demand and supply leads to tissue hypoxia, resulting in cramping, weakness, and discomfort. Option D correctly states that claudication is characterized by cramping and weakness, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Claudication occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, not the other way around as stated in Option A. Pain in claudication typically occurs with activity, not at rest as mentioned in Option B. While tissue hypoxia is a consequence of claudication, it is not the primary cause, making Option C incorrect.

2. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?

• A. Nadolol (Corgard)
• B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
• C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
• D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for lung cancer. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care?

• A. Positioning on the right side
• B. Bed rest for the first 24 hours
• C. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer
• D. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, frequent deep breathing and coughing are essential to prevent atelectasis and promote gas exchange. Patients are typically positioned on the surgical side to aid in gas exchange. Early mobilization is crucial to reduce the risk of postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. While chest tubes may or may not be placed in the surgical space, if used, they are clamped and only adjusted by the surgeon to manage serosanguineous fluid accumulation. Overfilling of the chest cavity can compromise remaining lung function and cardiovascular status. Chest x-rays are useful for monitoring fluid volume and space postoperatively. Therefore, the correct postoperative care instruction for the patient undergoing a left pneumonectomy is the frequent use of an incentive spirometer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as positioning on the right side, bed rest for the first 24 hours, and continuous chest tube drainage are not standard postoperative care practices for patients undergoing pneumonectomy.

4. After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, what is a priority nursing consideration for a patient in the day surgery center?

• A. Raise the siderails of the patient's bed
• B. Do not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake
• C. Check the temperature of the patient
• D. Teach the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, the priority nursing consideration is to not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake to the patient. Endoscopies involve passing a tube through the mouth into the esophagus or upper GI. Anesthesia is often given to inactivate the gag reflex, making the patient vulnerable to aspiration. Raising the siderails of the patient's bed is important for safety but not the immediate priority. Checking the patient's temperature may be important but is not the priority immediately after the procedure. Teaching the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS is important for post-procedure care but is not the priority immediately after the endoscopic procedure.

5. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

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