Nursing Elites

1. A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up."? Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?

• A. Self-esteem-building activities
• B. Anxiety self-control measures
• C. Sleep enhancement activities
• D. Suicide precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario should be suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. By implementing suicide precautions, the nurse can ensure constant monitoring and intervention to prevent any self-harm. While addressing self-esteem, anxiety, and sleep issues are essential, ensuring the patient's safety by prioritizing suicide precautions is crucial. Self-esteem-building activities, anxiety self-control measures, and sleep enhancement activities are important interventions but should follow the immediate concern of preventing harm from suicidal thoughts.

2. The body system that functions to maintain fluid balance, support immunity, and contains the spleen is the:

• A. Lymphatic System
• B. Digestive System
• C. Urinary System
• D. Respiratory System

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Lymphatic System is responsible for maintaining fluid balance and supporting immunity. It contains organs like the spleen, tonsils, thymus, lymph nodes, and lymph vessels. The spleen, a part of the lymphatic system, plays a crucial role in filtering blood and storing blood cells. The Digestive System is primarily involved in the breakdown and absorption of nutrients, not fluid balance or immunity. The Urinary System is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance, but it does not support immunity or contain the spleen. The Respiratory System is focused on gas exchange and oxygenating the blood, not fluid balance or immunity.

3. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

4. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

• A. "I can always trust my family."?
• B. "It seems like I always have bad luck."?
• C. "You never know who will turn against you."?
• D. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

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