Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

• A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
• B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
• C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
• D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.

2. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

3. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer both drugs.
• B. Administer the spironolactone.
• C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
• D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

4. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Elevated serum vitamin D
• D. Low urine calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

5. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit after surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side. The nurse should place the infant in which best position at this time?

• A. Prone position
• B. On the stomach
• C. Left lateral position
• D. Right lateral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side, the nurse should position the infant carefully to ensure comfort and prevent complications. Placing the infant in the prone position or on the stomach is not recommended as it may cause rubbing of the surgical site against the mattress. The optimal position for the infant is the left lateral position, away from the surgical repair site, to minimize the risk of trauma. Placing the infant on the right lateral position would be contraindicated as it is on the side of the repair. Additionally, positioning the infant upright on the back can help prevent airway obstruction by secretions, blood, or the tongue. Therefore, the correct choice is to place the infant in the left lateral position to promote safety and comfort post cleft lip surgery.

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