NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
- A. Gastric lavage
- B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
- C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
- D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.
2. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?
- B. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?
- C. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?
- D. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.
3. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
- A. Decrease in level of consciousness
- B. Loss of bladder control
- C. Altered sensation to stimuli
- D. Emotional lability
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.
4. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?
- A. Intercostal retractions
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
- D. Decreased venous O2 pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.
5. Which of the following statements best describes postural drainage as part of chest physiotherapy?
- A. Tapping on the chest wall to loosen secretions
- B. Squeezing the abdomen to increase expansion of the upper chest
- C. Using gravity to move secretions in the lung tissue
- D. Dilating the trachea to facilitate better release of secretions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used in chest physiotherapy for clients with accumulated lung secretions. It involves positioning the client to utilize gravity in moving secretions from the lungs. Choice A, tapping on the chest wall, describes percussion, not postural drainage. Choice B, squeezing the abdomen, is not a correct description of postural drainage. Choice D, dilating the trachea, is not related to postural drainage but may be associated with airway clearance techniques.
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