Nursing Elites

1. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

2. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient under contact precautions
• B. Use strict aseptic technique when caring for the wound
• C. Place another dressing to reinforce the first one
• D. Elevate the patient's leg to prevent more drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

4. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?

• A. Do not let this prescription run out.
• B. The medication may cause gingival hyperplasia.
• C. Periodic serum drug levels are needed.
• D. Watch for excessive facial hair growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.

5. When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?

• A. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration
• B. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration
• C. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration
• D. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early phase of heart failure, fine crackles are likely to be heard upon auscultation of the lungs. Fine crackles are characterized as discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration, which are often associated with airway secretions. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration, typically indicating fluid in the alveoli. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration, commonly heard in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct choice is C, as it describes the expected lung sounds in a patient with early heart failure.

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