Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

2. The healthcare provider assesses a patient suspected of having an asthma attack. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Audible crackles and orthopnea
• B. An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles
• C. Audible crackles and use of accessory muscles
• D. Audible wheeze and orthopnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles,' is the correct answer. In asthma, patients commonly present with wheezing due to airway constriction and the use of accessory muscles to aid in breathing. Audible crackles (rales) are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, congestive heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis. Orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing while lying flat, is typically seen in conditions like heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rather than asthma. Choice C is incorrect as crackles are not a typical finding in asthma. Choice D is incorrect as orthopnea is not a common clinical manifestation of asthma.

3. Which oxygen delivery system would provide the highest concentrations of oxygen to the client?

• A. Venturi mask
• B. Partial rebreather mask
• C. Non-rebreather mask
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the non-rebreather mask. This oxygen delivery system has a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag and one or more valves covering the air holes on the face mask itself to prevent the inhalation of room air but allow exhalation of air. When a tight seal is achieved around the mask, up to 100% of oxygen is available. Choice A, the Venturi mask, delivers precise oxygen concentrations but not as high as the non-rebreather mask. Choice B, the partial rebreather mask, allows the client to rebreathe some exhaled air, resulting in lower oxygen concentrations than the non-rebreather mask. Choice D, the simple face mask, delivers low to moderate oxygen concentrations and is not designed to provide the highest concentrations like the non-rebreather mask.

4. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

• A. Decrease in level of consciousness
• B. Loss of bladder control
• C. Altered sensation to stimuli
• D. Emotional lability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.

5. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?

• A. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily
• B. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months
• C. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series
• D. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B are at a higher risk for developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is essential to schedule them for liver cancer screening every 6 to 12 months to detect any potential malignancies at an early stage. Advising patients to limit alcohol intake is crucial as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage; thus, patients with chronic hepatitis B are advised to completely avoid alcohol. Administering the hepatitis C vaccine is irrelevant for a patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B since it is a different virus. Monitoring anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually is not necessary as the presence of anti-HBs indicates a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, and it does not require regular monitoring.

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