NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?
- A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
- B. I don't understand what you mean.'
- C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
- D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.
2. A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The young adult, at 20 years old, is in the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation according to Erikson's psychosocial theory. This stage typically occurs during young adulthood, between the ages of approximately 19 and 40. The primary conflict in this stage revolves around the development of intimate, loving relationships with others. This stage focuses on establishing close bonds and connections with others, seeking emotional closeness and commitment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage that occurs in infancy, Initiative vs. guilt is in early childhood, and Autonomy vs. shame is in toddlerhood. These stages each represent different developmental challenges and conflicts that individuals face at various points in their lives.
3. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
4. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?
- A. Change in femininity
- B. Body image changes
- C. Diminished sexual desire
- D. Slow recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.
5. A teenager begins to cry while talking with the nurse about the problem of not being able to make friends. Which is the correct therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Sitting quietly with the client
- B. Telling the client that crying is not helpful
- C. Suggesting that the client play a board game
- D. Recommending how the client can change this situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct therapeutic nursing intervention in this situation is sitting quietly with the client. This approach conveys empathy, acceptance, and a willingness to listen, which can help the teenager feel supported and understood. It is important for the nurse to create a safe space for the client to express their emotions without judgment. Telling the client that crying is not helpful dismisses their feelings and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Suggesting a board game as a distraction may prevent the client from fully exploring and addressing their emotions about the issue. Recommending how the client can change the situation may be premature at this stage, as the priority is to provide emotional support and establish trust before delving into problem-solving.
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