Nursing Elites

1. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?

• A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
• B. I don't understand what you mean.'
• C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
• D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.

2. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?

• A. Anger
• B. Apathy
• C. Anxiety
• D. Agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

• A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
• B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
• C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
• D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

4. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the nurse to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?

• A. Determine how well the client can change the dressing.
• B. Ask the client to demonstrate the procedure.
• C. Seek a family member's opinion on the client's dressing change ability.
• D. Observe the client change the dressing unassisted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best method for the nurse to evaluate the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home is by observing the client change the dressing unassisted. Direct observation allows the nurse to assess if the client has mastered the skill and provides an opportunity to confirm the proficiency. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same level of assessment as direct observation. Option A incorrectly focuses on the client's feelings rather than their actual performance ability. Option B, asking the client to demonstrate the procedure, may not accurately reflect their practical skills. Option C, seeking a family member's opinion, introduces potential bias and may not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability to perform the dressing change independently.

5. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

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