Nursing Elites

1. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?

• A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
• B. I don't understand what you mean.'
• C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
• D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.

2. The nurse transcribes the postoperative prescriptions for a client who returns to the unit following surgery and notes that an antihypertensive medication that was prescribed preoperatively is not listed. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication.
• B. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively.
• C. Withhold the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable.
• D. Contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has noted that an antihypertensive medication prescribed preoperatively is missing from the postoperative prescriptions. It is essential to renew preoperative medications postoperatively. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the antihypertensive medication. Consulting with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication is not appropriate in this situation as pharmacists do not prescribe or renew medications. Administering the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively without a current prescription poses a risk to the client's safety. Withholding the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable does not address the issue of the missing prescription and delays the client's necessary treatment.

3. Which action should the nurse implement when providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English?

• A. Ask an interpreter to provide wound care instructions.
• B. Speak directly to the client, with an interpreter translating.
• C. Request the accompanying family member to translate.
• D. Instruct a bilingual employee to read the instructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English, the nurse should speak directly to the client with the assistance of an interpreter for accurate translation. The interpreter is trained to provide objective translations in the client's primary language, ensuring the client understands the instructions and can ask questions. Using family members for translation is discouraged as they may alter instructions or feel uncomfortable discussing certain topics. Instructing a bilingual employee to read the instructions is not ideal as they may lack the necessary training in accurate interpretation, which could lead to misunderstandings in crucial wound care instructions.

4. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

• A. Bulimia
• B. Anorexia
• C. Orthorexia
• D. Binge eating disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

5. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?

• A. Attempts to minimize the illness
• B. Lacks an emotional response to the illness
• C. Refuses to discuss the condition with the client's spouse
• D. Expresses displeasure with the prescribed activity program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.

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