NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?
- A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
- B. I don't understand what you mean.'
- C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
- D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.
2. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
3. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
- A. Feelings of guilt
- B. Need to control others
- C. Desire for punishment
- D. Excessive physical activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
4. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?
- A. Strange bed and surroundings.
- B. Separation from parents.
- C. Presence of other toddlers.
- D. Unfamiliar toys and games.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.
5. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?
- A. Pick's disease
- B. Syphilis
- C. Encephalopathy
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.
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