Nursing Elites

1. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?

• A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
• B. I don't understand what you mean.'
• C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
• D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.

2. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?

• A. Feelings of guilt
• B. Need to control others
• C. Desire for punishment
• D. Excessive physical activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.

3. The nurse transcribes the postoperative prescriptions for a client who returns to the unit following surgery and notes that an antihypertensive medication that was prescribed preoperatively is not listed. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication.
• B. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively.
• C. Withhold the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable.
• D. Contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has noted that an antihypertensive medication prescribed preoperatively is missing from the postoperative prescriptions. It is essential to renew preoperative medications postoperatively. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the antihypertensive medication. Consulting with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication is not appropriate in this situation as pharmacists do not prescribe or renew medications. Administering the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively without a current prescription poses a risk to the client's safety. Withholding the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable does not address the issue of the missing prescription and delays the client's necessary treatment.

4. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?

• A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
• B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
• C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
• D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.

5. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?

• A. Confront the client about the behavior.
• B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
• C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
• D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.

Similar Questions