Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?

• A. Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.
• B. Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.
• C. The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.
• D. Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.

2. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

• A. Schizophrenia
• B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
• C. Bipolar disorder
• D. Delusional disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

3. Which therapeutic approach would indicate the client is receiving desensitization therapy?

• A. Imagery
• B. Modeling
• C. Role playing
• D. Assertiveness training

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Imagery.' Imagery is a therapeutic approach used in desensitization therapy. It helps in facilitating positive self-talk and involves the client initiating and controlling mental pictures to correct faulty cognitions. Modeling, role-playing, and assertiveness training are effective general behavioral approaches but are not specific to desensitization therapy.

4. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?

• A. Strange bed and surroundings.
• B. Separation from parents.
• C. Presence of other toddlers.
• D. Unfamiliar toys and games.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.

5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

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