Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving high-dose brachytherapy as a form of cancer treatment. What type of teaching must the nurse include when educating this client about safety?

• A. The client must remain in isolation under airborne precautions
• B. The client should stay in a private room at the hospital
• C. The client may need to limit visits from friends and family
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client undergoing high-dose brachytherapy has a radiation implant placed for cancer treatment. To ensure safety, the client should be in a private hospital room to prevent radiation exposure to others. Limiting visits from friends and family is necessary to prevent overexposure. Option A is incorrect as isolation under airborne precautions is not required for brachytherapy. Option B and C are the correct choices as they focus on minimizing radiation exposure to others, ensuring safety during treatment.

2. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

3. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

4. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Assist the client to lie in the semi-Fowler position
• B. Apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion
• C. Instill a total of 30cc of fluid into the client's rectum
• D. Ask the client to hold the solution in for 30 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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