NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
2. During a health history assessment of a new patient, which data should be the focus for patient teaching?
- A. Age and gender
- B. Saturated fat intake
- C. Hispanic/Latino ethnicity
- D. Family history of diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is saturated fat intake. Behaviors play a crucial role in health outcomes, and saturated fat intake is a modifiable behavior that can significantly impact a patient's health. By focusing on educating the patient about reducing saturated fat intake, the healthcare provider can empower the patient to make positive changes. While age, gender, ethnicity, and family history are important factors in understanding a patient's health status, they are not behaviors that can be directly modified through patient teaching. Therefore, these factors are essential for developing an individualized care plan but are not the primary focus of patient teaching. Saturated fat intake directly relates to dietary habits, which can be altered through education and support to promote better health outcomes.
3. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
- B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
- C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
- D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.
5. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?
- A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
- B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
- C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
- D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access