NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
2. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?
- A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
- B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
- C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.
3. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
4. A woman presents with bruises on her face and back in various stages of healing. She states, 'sometimes he just gets so angry.' Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response from the nurse?
- A. Do you mean your boyfriend?
- B. Do you mean your boyfriend?
- C. No one will ever hurt you again.
- D. Tell me more about what happens when he gets angry.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information by asking the client to elaborate on what occurs when the individual in question gets angry. It is essential for the nurse to understand the situation better before taking any action or making assumptions. Option A and B are repetitive and do not encourage further exploration of the situation. Option C offers a false promise and reassurance that the nurse cannot guarantee, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's needs.
5. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
- A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
- B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
- C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
- D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.
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