NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
2. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:
- A. Hypotriglyceridemia
- B. Abdominal hernia
- C. Anorexia
- D. Peritonitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.
3. The nurse reviews the record of a newborn infant and notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?
- A. Incessant crying
- B. Coughing at nighttime
- C. Choking with feedings
- D. Severe projectile vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the esophagus ends before it reaches the stomach, forming a blind pouch, and there is an abnormal connection (fistula) with the trachea. Any child who exhibits the '3 Cs'"?coughing and choking with feedings and unexplained cyanosis"?should be suspected to have tracheoesophageal fistula. Option A, 'Incessant crying,' is not a typical sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Option B, 'Coughing at nighttime,' is not a specific sign associated with this condition. Option D, 'Severe projectile vomiting,' is not a common sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula.
4. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?
- A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
- B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
- C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
- D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.
5. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
- B. Positive urine pregnancy test
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
- D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.
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