a 49 year old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol inderal which finding is the best indicator
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

2. Which of the following diseases or disorders is acute?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an acute illness characterized by inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs. It comes on suddenly and typically lasts for a short duration. Treatment can help cure pneumonia. Paralysis, Alzheimer's disease, and Diabetes are chronic conditions. Paralysis is the loss of muscle function in part of the body, usually permanent. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder leading to memory loss and cognitive decline, and it is incurable. Diabetes is a chronic condition that affects how your body turns food into energy, and it requires lifelong management. Therefore, Pneumonia is the only acute condition among the options provided.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

4. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.

5. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

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