NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
2. A child has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?
- A. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
- B. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
- D. Physical activity should be minimized.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs are important as a first-line treatment and typically require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Choice A is incorrect as early treatment can improve outcomes and prevent joint deformities. Choice B is incorrect as juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not necessarily progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity should be encouraged in children with arthritis to maintain joint mobility and overall health.
3. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
- A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
- B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
- C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
- D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.
4. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.
5. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
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