which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46 year old woman with acute pancreatitis
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

2. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.

3. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.

4. A client is in need of hemodialysis for end-stage renal failure. The physician has inserted an AV fistula. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for this access site?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for an AV fistula used for hemodialysis, it is important to assess for a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (a vibrating sensation) at the site of the fistula. These indicate proper blood flow through the fistula, ensuring it is patent and suitable for hemodialysis. Assessing for clotting in fistula tubing (Choice A) is not a routine nursing intervention for AV fistulas. Applying a dressing over the fistula site (Choice B) is not necessary as the site needs to be accessible for hemodialysis. Assessing circulation proximal to the fistula site (Choice D) is important but not specific to caring for the access site of an AV fistula.

5. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.

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