Nursing Elites

1. The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following?

• A. I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days.
• B. I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.
• C. I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks.
• D. I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.' After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patients have Band-Aids over the incisions and can typically remove the bandages the next day. Patients are usually discharged the same or next day and have minimal restrictions on their daily activities. Yellow-green drainage from the incision would be abnormal, requiring the patient to contact their healthcare provider. While a low-fat diet may be recommended initially after surgery, it is not a lifelong requirement, as the body can adjust to the absence of the gallbladder over time. Choice A is incorrect as abnormal drainage should be reported. Choice C is incorrect as most patients can resume normal activities within a few days to a week. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining a low-fat diet is not a lifelong necessity after a cholecystectomy.

2. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

• A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
• B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
• C. Metallic taste
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

3. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

4. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

5. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis and expects to note which finding that is associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Brown-colored urine
• C. Low urinary specific gravity
• D. Low blood urea nitrogen level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common. Blood urea nitrogen levels may be elevated. A moderately elevated to high urinary specific gravity is associated with glomerulonephritis.

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