the nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint how often should a restraint be removed the area massaged and the joints moved throug
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

2. Which gland of the endocrine system secretes a hormone that assists with the sleep/wake cycle?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the Pineal gland. The Pineal gland, located in the brain, secretes melatonin, which plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep/wake cycle in response to exposure to light. The Pituitary gland (Choice A) secretes various hormones but not specifically related to the sleep/wake cycle. The Pancreas (Choice C) secretes insulin and digestive enzymes, not hormones related to the sleep/wake cycle. The Hypothalamus (Choice D) is involved in regulating many bodily functions, including hormone secretion, but it does not directly secrete the hormone that regulates the sleep/wake cycle.

3. A client is being assisted with ambulation in the hallway using a gait belt when they become dizzy and start to faint. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a client becomes dizzy and starts to faint while being assisted with ambulation, the nurse's first action should be to assist the client into a sitting position to prevent or reduce the impact of a fall. This can be done by guiding the client to sit in the nearest chair or sliding down along a wall for support. Option A is incorrect because standing behind the client may not prevent a fall and could potentially lead to injury. Option C is incorrect as pulling the client upward may worsen the situation. Option D, calling for help, is not the first action to take when the client is at risk of falling.

4. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

5. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

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