the nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night which client statement indicates that the nurse should
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NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.

2. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

3. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

4. Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.

5. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.

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