Nursing Elites

1. A teacher brings a 5-year-old child to the school nurse because of a bruise under her eye. When asked about the bruise, the child responds, 'my daddy did it.' What is the nurse's initial action in this situation?

• A. Allow the child to return to class and monitor for future events that are suggestive of abuse
• B. Call the parent and request an explanation for the bruises
• C. Call the police and ask for a warrant for the parent's arrest
• D. Notify the school administrator

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of suspected child abuse, the priority for the school nurse is to notify the school administrator immediately. The school administrator can then collaborate with the nurse to follow established protocols for reporting suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities. All suspicions or allegations of child abuse must be handled with sensitivity and in compliance with state laws and school policies. All other options, such as allowing the child to return to class without further action, directly contacting the parent, or involving the police without proper investigation, could potentially compromise the safety and well-being of the child and may not adhere to legal requirements for reporting suspected abuse.

2. A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?

• A. Spasms of the tongue and face
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.

3. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?

• A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client's room
• B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness
• C. Note the client's capabilities to increase self esteem
• D. Set a "no suicide"? contract with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing a patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients but not specifically for suicide.

4. A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old man who has had swallowing difficulties. All of the following interventions are appropriate for this client EXCEPT:

• A. Keep the client in an upright position at all times
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every shift and after feedings
• C. Maintain suction equipment at the client's bedside
• D. Instruct the client about how to perform swallowing exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with swallowing difficulties, it is crucial to prevent aspiration of food into the lungs. Appropriate interventions include auscultating lung sounds every shift and after feedings to assess for any changes in breathing patterns, maintaining suction equipment at the client's bedside in case of difficulties, and providing instruction on swallowing exercises. Keeping the client in an upright position at all times is not necessary and may not always be feasible or comfortable for the client. This rigid requirement is not part of the standard care protocol for managing swallowing difficulties.

5. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

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