Nursing Elites

1. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?

• A. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base.
• B. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus.
• C. The patients white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/L
• D. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?

• A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• D. Furosemide (Lasix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.

3. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?

• A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
• B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
• C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
• D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.

4. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

5. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

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