NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program and is wheelchair-mobile has redness in the sacral area. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
- B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
- C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
- D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, as prolonged pressure on the skin can lead to tissue damage. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on vulnerable areas like the sacrum. Increasing fluid intake can also aid in preventing skin breakdown by maintaining skin hydration. While a vitamin supplement may support overall health, it is not as critical as repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Purchasing a new wheelchair is an expensive intervention and should be considered a last resort after implementing less costly preventive measures.
2. A daughter of a Chinese-speaking client approaches the nurse and asks multiple questions while maintaining direct eye contact. Which culturally related concept would the daughter's behavior reflect?
- A. Prejudice
- B. Stereotyping
- C. Assimilation
- D. Ethnocentrism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is assimilation. Assimilation involves incorporating the behaviors of a dominant culture. In this scenario, maintaining eye contact is characteristic of the American or Canadian culture and not of Asian cultures. Prejudice is a negative belief about another person or group and does not characterize this behavior. Stereotyping is the perception that all members of a group are alike, which is not demonstrated by the daughter's behavior. Ethnocentrism is the perception that one's beliefs are superior to those of others, which is not evident in this situation.
3. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
4. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
- A. Confrontation
- B. Open communication
- C. Health teaching about childrearing
- D. Validation of the child's physical status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.
5. What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?
- A. Scheduling pain medication at regular intervals
- B. Administering the medication only when the pain is severe
- C. Avoiding the administration of medication unless it is requested
- D. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with other women in labor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.
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