NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program and is wheelchair-mobile has redness in the sacral area. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
- B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
- C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
- D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, as prolonged pressure on the skin can lead to tissue damage. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on vulnerable areas like the sacrum. Increasing fluid intake can also aid in preventing skin breakdown by maintaining skin hydration. While a vitamin supplement may support overall health, it is not as critical as repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Purchasing a new wheelchair is an expensive intervention and should be considered a last resort after implementing less costly preventive measures.
2. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction for the past week?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Albumin
- C. Calcium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum sodium levels carefully when they have been on nasogastric (NG) tube suction for an extended period. Prolonged NG suctioning can lead to fluid loss and subsequent hyponatremia. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications. White blood cell count (Option A), albumin (Option B), and calcium (Option C) are not typically affected by prolonged NG suctioning. Therefore, these values are not the priority for monitoring in this situation.
3. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?
- A. Pick's disease
- B. Syphilis
- C. Encephalopathy
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
5. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?
- A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
- B. I don't understand what you mean.'
- C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
- D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.
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