Nursing Elites

1. You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.

• A. enough sick time, so this is not a problem.
• B. finished all your work, so this is not a problem.
• C. seriously abandoned the patients.
• D. seriously abused and neglected the patients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.

2. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

3. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

4. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

5. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation?

• A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation.
• B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient.
• C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.
• D. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of an emergency where a pregnant woman is choking, chest thrusts are performed to clear the airway obstruction. This technique is used instead of abdominal thrusts to avoid potential harm to the fetus. While chest thrusts are not as effective as abdominal thrusts in clearing obstructions, they are the preferred method in this specific situation. Choices A and B are incorrect as chest thrusts are not typically performed during CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation or when assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. Choice D is incorrect as chest thrusts are indeed warranted when assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.

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