NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, what should you do to provide good and safe mouth care?
- A. keep the head of the bed up to prevent aspiration
- B. brush the teeth and rinse the mouth with a cup of water
- C. use a special foam swab to brush only the tongue
- D. use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, it is crucial to use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth. This method helps maintain good oral hygiene for comatose patients. Special foam swabs are designed to effectively clean all areas of the mouth, including the cheeks and tongue, ensuring thorough care. Using water for mouth care in comatose patients can lead to aspiration, so it is important to avoid this practice. Keeping the head of the bed up alone does not prevent aspiration during mouth care for comatose patients, making choice A incorrect. Merely brushing the tongue (choice C) or using a foam swab only on the tongue (choice B) may not provide the comprehensive mouth care necessary for patients in a coma.
2. A patient in a clinic has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. What is the most likely route of transmission?
- A. Sexual contact with an infected partner
- B. Contaminated food
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Illegal drug use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is contaminated food. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. It is caused by the Hepatitis A virus (HAV), which is a single-stranded, positive-sense RNA virus. Sexual contact with an infected partner is more commonly associated with hepatitis B and C. Blood transfusion is a potential route for hepatitis B and C transmission due to bloodborne pathogens. Illegal drug use, particularly involving shared needles, is a common route for hepatitis C transmission.
3. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed?
- A. UAP splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- B. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.
- C. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals.
- D. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to intervene in is when the UAP lowers the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees. This position can decrease ventilation in a patient with pneumonia, potentially worsening their condition. Choices B and C involve assisting the patient with activities of daily living and promoting mobility, which are appropriate for the patient's care. Choice A, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, can help the patient manage coughing effectively, which is also appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.
4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?
- A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
- B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
- C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
- D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.
5. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?
- A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
- B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
- C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
- D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.
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