Nursing Elites

1. Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?

• A. Transfer the nurse to another unit in the facility.
• B. Help the nurse choose a position on a low-stress unit.
• C. Encourage the nurse to attend educational programs.
• D. Help the nurse identify personal responses to job stress.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.

2. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

3. A client is having difficulty applying for a job due to panic and anxiety. A nurse is helping by pretending to be the job supervisor while the client practices answering questions during an imaginary interview. This technique is an example of:

• A. Reinforcement
• B. Presenting reality
• C. Role playing
• D. Summarizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Role-playing is the correct answer. It involves practicing appropriate behaviors during imaginary scenarios that simulate real-life situations. In this scenario, the nurse is helping the client prepare for a job interview by acting as the job supervisor. Role-playing allows the client to practice and develop strategies to cope with anxiety and panic during the actual interview. Reinforcement (Choice A) involves providing consequences to strengthen a behavior. Presenting reality (Choice B) involves helping the client differentiate between real and unreal experiences. Summarizing (Choice D) involves condensing information. In this context, role-playing is the most appropriate technique to address the client's anxiety and panic related to job interviews.

4. A 5-year-old child has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initiative vs. guilt.' According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, children aged 3-6 years old are in the stage of initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the environment. They develop a sense of purpose and direction, but may also experience feelings of guilt if they believe their actions have caused harm or conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Trust vs. mistrust' is the first stage for infants, 'Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is the second stage for toddlers, and 'Intimacy vs. isolation' is a stage that occurs later in adulthood.

5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

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