NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
3. What is the best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder?
- A. Establishing clear boundaries
- B. Exploring vocational possibilities
- C. Discussing feelings of victimization
- D. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder is to establish clear boundaries. Individuals with this disorder struggle with impulsivity and have difficulty recognizing and respecting boundaries in their relationships. By establishing clear boundaries, it helps provide structure and consistency to the client, aiding in their treatment and management of the disorder. Exploring vocational possibilities may be important at some point, but it is not the priority intervention for managing borderline personality disorder. Discussing feelings of victimization, while common, may not be as effective initially due to the client's lack of insight and resistance. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client may not be as productive as shorter, more focused interactions that are geared towards boundary reinforcement.
4. What initial response would the nurse give to a husband who is upset that his wife's alcohol withdrawal delirium has persisted for a second day?
- A. "I see that you're worried. We're using medication to ease your wife's discomfort."?
- B. "This is expected. I suggest that you go home because there's nothing you can do to help."?
- C. "If you're afraid that she will die, I assure you, very few alcoholics die during detoxification."?
- D. "If you are concerned that she is uncomfortable, I'm sure that she's not in pain."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the husband's feelings and provide information on the treatment plan to alleviate his concerns. This approach validates his emotions and educates him on the steps being taken to help his wife, promoting understanding and reducing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the husband's worries and implies helplessness, potentially increasing his distress. Choice C is inappropriate as it introduces the concept of death, which can heighten fear and anxiety in the husband. Choice D is not recommended as it provides reassurance about the wife's pain without accurate knowledge of her discomfort, which could undermine trust and communication between the nurse and the husband.
5. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
- A. Low serum albumin level
- B. Low serum transferrin level
- C. High hemoglobin level
- D. High cholesterol level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency significantly lowers serum albumin levels. Albumin, derived from protein breakdown, is produced by the liver when adequate amino acids are available. Due to its long half-life, acute protein loss minimally affects serum albumin levels. In contrast, serum transferrin, with a shorter half-life of 8 to 10 days, decreases with acute protein deficiency and is not a reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Elevated hemoglobin levels may occur in conditions like dehydration or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, making it an unreliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. High cholesterol levels are not directly linked to protein malnutrition and do not serve as a reliable indicator. Therefore, the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition among the options provided is a low serum albumin level.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access