which of the following medications would not be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

2. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. The mother of a 5-month-old is being educated about her baby's nutrition by the nurse. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I dip his pacifier in honey so he'll take it.'' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because honey should be avoided in infants due to the risk of infant botulism. Honey may contain spores of Clostridium botulinum, which can lead to serious illness in infants as they lack the necessary digestive enzymes to eliminate the spores. Feeding rice cereal, responding to night-time feedings, and storing formula in the refrigerator are appropriate practices for infant care, indicating understanding of the instructions.

4. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

5. Which factor is most critical for a single mother of 2 children who recently lost her job and does not know what to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a crisis intervention, the priority is to identify available situational supports, such as family, friends, community resources, and social services, that can help the single mother and her children during this difficult time. Understanding the developmental history of the children may be important to assess their needs, but it is not the most critical factor in this immediate crisis. Exploring underlying unconscious conflicts is more suited for long-term therapy rather than crisis intervention. While the willingness to restructure lifestyle may eventually be necessary, the immediate focus should be on finding support systems to address the current crisis.

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