which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an n95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

2. A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup. The infant is currently sleeping. What would the nurse do first when beginning the examination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the infant is quiet or sleeping, it is an ideal time to assess the cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal systems. It is recommended not to wake the infant unnecessarily. Auscultating the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping allows for a comprehensive assessment without disturbing the infant. Examining the infant's hips prematurely may disrupt the infant's sleep. Starting with an assessment of the eye is not appropriate as it is an invasive procedure and should be performed towards the end of the examination after the non-invasive assessments have been completed.

3. Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.

4. What does preload refer to?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preload refers to the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart before contraction. Preload is an essential factor in determining the force of ventricular contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because preload is specifically related to the volume of blood entering the right side of the heart. Choices C and D are incorrect as they refer to afterload, which is the pressure that the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles into the systemic or pulmonary circulation.

5. The mitral valve is synonymous with the term:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve, is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, regulating blood flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle. The term 'bicuspid' refers to the valve's two cusps or leaflets. This distinguishes it from the tricuspid valve (Choice D), which has three cusps, making Choice D incorrect. The left ventricle (Choice A) and right atrium (Choice B) are not synonymous with the mitral valve. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Bicuspid valve.

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