Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

2. What type of blood pressure measurement error is most likely to occur if the nurse does not check for the presence of an auscultatory gap?

• A. Diastolic blood pressure may not be heard.
• B. Diastolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• C. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• D. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely high.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If an auscultatory gap is undetected, a falsely low systolic reading may occur. This gap can lead to an underestimation of the systolic blood pressure, causing potential misinterpretation of the patient's condition. The diastolic blood pressure may not be heard due to the gap, but the critical issue in this scenario is the risk of underestimating systolic blood pressure, which can impact clinical decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the key concern in this context is the potential for a falsely low systolic blood pressure reading when an auscultatory gap is not assessed.

3. The NFPA diamond has four colors. The blue diamond:

• A. indicates hazards to health.
• B. designates that it is safe to use water to put out this type of fire.
• C. indicates that ice is necessary to treat an injury with this type of chemical.
• D. indicates that the chemical may be incinerated upon disposal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA) uses a safety diamond to communicate the level of threat posed by a specific chemical. The blue diamond in the NFPA diamond system signifies potential health hazards associated with the use of that chemical. Choice B is incorrect because the blue diamond does not indicate anything about using water to extinguish fires. Choice C is incorrect as the NFPA diamond does not provide information on treating injuries. Choice D is also incorrect as the blue diamond does not suggest incineration upon disposal; it pertains to health hazards.

4. Which of the following is an example of an environmental hazard that may put the healthcare professional at risk of injury?

• A. Loud noise from the hospital maintenance system
• B. Airborne powder containing latex
• C. Chemicals containing ethylene oxide
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Healthcare professionals, including nurses, are exposed to various environmental hazards that may negatively impact their physical or mental health. Hazards come in several forms, such as loud noise from hospital systems, which can damage hearing; airborne latex powder, leading to allergic reactions; and chemicals like ethylene oxide, a sterilizing agent that can cause cancer. Therefore, all the options listed pose risks to healthcare professionals, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A, loud noise, is a hazard that can affect hearing health. Choice B, airborne latex powder, can trigger allergic responses. Choice C, chemicals containing ethylene oxide, are hazardous and can lead to serious health issues. Each option represents a distinct environmental risk that healthcare professionals should be aware of and take precautions against.

5. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

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