NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?
- A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
- B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
- C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.
2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
3. The client is a 35-year-old multiparous individual scheduled for a tubal ligation. The nurse assesses the client's emotional response to the planned procedure. Which factor in the client's history will contribute to the healthy resolution of any emotional problem associated with sterilization?
- A. Belief that the surgery will relieve her monthly dysmenorrhea
- B. Knowledge that her partner does not want to have any more children
- C. Feeling that her family is complete and she now has the children she planned for
- D. Recovery from her previous complicated birth and a desire to avoid another birth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is feeling that her family is complete and she now has the children she planned for. Many couples in their 30s who feel that their families are complete choose sterilization as their method of contraception. Sterilization by means of tubal ligation should not be expected to have an effect on dysmenorrhea. The decision to undergo sterilization should be the individual's own choice and should not be influenced by others, including partners. Decisions regarding sterilization should ideally be made when the individual is not under stress, such as after recovery from a previous complicated birth. Therefore, the key factor contributing to a healthy resolution of emotional issues related to sterilization is the feeling of family completeness and achieving the planned number of children.
4. A 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program and is wheelchair-mobile has redness in the sacral area. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
- B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
- C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
- D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, as prolonged pressure on the skin can lead to tissue damage. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on vulnerable areas like the sacrum. Increasing fluid intake can also aid in preventing skin breakdown by maintaining skin hydration. While a vitamin supplement may support overall health, it is not as critical as repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Purchasing a new wheelchair is an expensive intervention and should be considered a last resort after implementing less costly preventive measures.
5. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
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