which initial response would the nurse make to a 67 year old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

2. A client recently had an abdominoperineal resection and colostomy. While the nurse changes the dressing, the client states, 'You think that it looks repulsive.' The nurse identifies that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Projection. Projection is the defense mechanism where unacceptable feelings and emotions are attributed to others. In this scenario, the client is projecting their own feelings of repulsion onto the nurse. Sublimation involves substituting socially acceptable feelings to replace threatening ones. Compensation refers to overachievement in a different area to cover up a weakness. Intellectualization is the use of mental reasoning to avoid facing emotional aspects of a situation.

3. In the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client, which goal is the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client is to establish trust. Trust is fundamental in building a therapeutic relationship, which is essential for effective care. Without trust, the client may not engage in therapy or interventions. Once trust is established, the nurse can then assess the client's feelings of self-worth, sense of identity, and ability to socialize. While these other goals are important in the overall care of the client, establishing trust forms the foundation for further progress in the therapeutic relationship and treatment.

4. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.

5. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

Similar Questions

A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
The client admitted for uncontrolled diabetes is worried about how to pay bills for the family while hospitalized. Which statement by the nurse is therapeutic?
Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of suicide?
A teenager begins to cry while talking with the nurse about the problem of not being able to make friends. Which is the correct therapeutic nursing intervention?

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