which initial response would the nurse make to a 67 year old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

2. While receiving a preoperative enema, a client starts to cry and says, 'I'm sorry you have to do this messy thing for me.' Which is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response in this situation is to acknowledge the client's emotional state, as it shows empathy and encourages further expression of feelings. Choice A, 'I don't mind it,' dismisses the client's emotions and does not address the underlying issue. Choice C, 'This is part of my job,' focuses on the task rather than the client's emotional needs. Choice D, 'Nurses get used to this,' minimizes the client's feelings and lacks empathy. By selecting choice B, 'You seem upset,' the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens the door for further communication and support.

3. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

4. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nocturia is characterized by urination during the night, disrupting sleep patterns. Instructing the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal (Option A) can help reduce the production of urine, thereby decreasing the need to void at night. Cranberry juice (Option B) is beneficial for preventing bladder infections but does not address the issue of nocturia. While warm decaffeinated beverages (Option C) may promote sleep, consuming fluids close to bedtime can exacerbate nocturia. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill (Option D) is not the first-line intervention and may lead to urinary incontinence if the client is sedated and unable to awaken to void, worsening the nocturia issue.

5. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

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