which initial response would the nurse make to a 67 year old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

2. Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.

3. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

4. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient. Which intervention is the best example of a culturally appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Culturally appropriate nursing care requires sensitivity to the beliefs and practices of diverse cultural groups. Asking permission before touching a patient during a physical assessment is a universally respectful practice, as many cultures consider it disrespectful to touch a person without consent. This approach demonstrates respect for the patient's autonomy and cultural preferences. Maintaining a personal space of at least 2 feet can be a good practice for infection control or personal comfort but may not be culturally significant for all patients. Insisting that family members provide most of the patient's personal care may not align with the patient's cultural norms or preferences. Considering a patient's ethnicity as the most important factor in care planning overlooks the individuality of the patient and may lead to stereotyping or assumptions that are not accurate or helpful in providing tailored care.

5. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nocturia is characterized by urination during the night, disrupting sleep patterns. Instructing the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal (Option A) can help reduce the production of urine, thereby decreasing the need to void at night. Cranberry juice (Option B) is beneficial for preventing bladder infections but does not address the issue of nocturia. While warm decaffeinated beverages (Option C) may promote sleep, consuming fluids close to bedtime can exacerbate nocturia. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill (Option D) is not the first-line intervention and may lead to urinary incontinence if the client is sedated and unable to awaken to void, worsening the nocturia issue.

Similar Questions

Which behavioral characteristic describes the domestic abuser?
The nurse is caring for an Asian patient who is being admitted to the hospital. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when interviewing this patient?
Which feeling would be difficult for a client with major depression to express?
A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?
When developing Jerry's plan of care, which of the following would NOT be helpful to include?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses