Nursing Elites

1. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

• A. 200/92
• B. 200/100
• C. 100/200/92
• D. 200/100/92

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

2. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. The client most likely has a mental illness that should be treated before addressing sleep issues
• B. The client may have unrecognized anxiety or fear that could be contributing to poor sleep habits
• C. The client may become tired once they start talking
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.

3. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions?

• A. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman
• B. Stroke
• C. Heart attack
• D. Migraine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. The acronym FAST is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The letters stand for Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. This mnemonic helps in identifying facial drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulties, and the importance of time in seeking emergency care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the FAST acronym specifically pertains to stroke recognition, not the onset of labor, heart attacks, or migraines.

4. A newly admitted patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds over the past month and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
• B. Chronic low self-esteem
• C. Risk for suicide
• D. Hopelessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario is 'Risk for suicide.' When a patient presents with major depression, significant weight loss, suicidal ideation, and lack of symptom improvement despite medication, the immediate concern is to address the risk of suicide. 'Risk for suicide' takes precedence as it involves a direct threat to the patient's life. 'Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements' may be a concern but does not take priority over the risk of suicide. 'Chronic low self-esteem' and 'Hopelessness' are relevant issues in depression but are not as urgent as addressing the immediate risk of suicidal behavior.

5. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

• A. The client's IV is infiltrated
• B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
• C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
• D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

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