to palpate the liver during a head to toe physical assessment the nurse
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. To palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse should

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To palpate the liver effectively during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the patient should be positioned on the right side with the bed flat. This position helps to splint the biopsy site and allows for proper palpation of the liver. Elevating the head of the bed has no direct relevance to palpating the liver. Checking coagulation studies is done before the biopsy and is unrelated to palpation. Putting pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag is not an appropriate way to facilitate liver palpation as it does not provide the necessary support and stabilization needed for the procedure.

2. The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary health care provider (PHCP) has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other parts of the affected intestine. Clinical manifestations of Hirschsprung's disease include chronic constipation with pellet-like or ribbon-like foul-smelling stools, delayed or absent passage of meconium in the neonatal period, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive. In the case of an infant with suspected Hirschsprung's disease, regurgitation of feedings is a sign that may have led the mother to seek healthcare. This symptom can be associated with the bowel dysfunction and obstruction seen in Hirschsprung's disease. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease. Diarrhea is not a common symptom, projectile vomiting is not a typical presentation, and constipation, while a symptom of the disease, is not the sign that would most likely prompt a visit to seek healthcare in an infant suspected of having Hirschsprung's disease.

3. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.

4. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

5. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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