NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
2. Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?
- A. Asking to speak to someone
- B. Asking to be alone
- C. Listening to music
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.
3. The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence and denies any family history of epilepsy. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.
- B. The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.
- C. Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.
- D. Long-term treatment will prevent future seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.' There are various potential causes for a childhood seizure, such as fever, central nervous system conditions, trauma, metabolic alterations, and idiopathic reasons. It's essential not to jump to conclusions about epilepsy based on one seizure. Options A, C, and D provide premature or inaccurate information. Option A may give false reassurance without proper evaluation, option C assumes one seizure guarantees no recurrence, and option D oversimplifies treatment outcomes.
4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
5. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?
- A. Change in femininity
- B. Body image changes
- C. Diminished sexual desire
- D. Slow recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.
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