Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Marfan syndrome
• C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
• D. Achondroplastic dwarfism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

2. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

• A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer.
• B. Have another MA perform a repeat dipstick test.
• C. Run a Clinitest.
• D. Run an Acetest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

3. The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a client's plan of care: 'Client will reestablish a pattern of daily bowel movements without straining within two months.' The nurse would write this statement under which section of the plan of care?

• A. Nursing diagnosis/problem list
• B. Nursing orders
• C. Short-term goals
• D. Long-term goals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Long-term goals.' Long-term goals are designed to describe changes in client behavior expected over a time frame greater than one week. In this case, the goal of reestablishing a pattern of daily bowel movements without straining within two months falls under a long-term goal. Long-term goals are aimed at restoring normal functioning in a problem area and are beneficial for healthcare workers caring for the client across different settings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nursing diagnosis/problem list, nursing orders, and short-term goals do not encompass the desired timeframe or level of expected change in this scenario.

4. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?

• A. Rigor mortis
• B. Postmortem decomposition
• C. Algor mortis
• D. Livor mortis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.

5. What is the anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles?

• A. Septum
• B. Sputum
• C. Separator
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the septum. The septum is a structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the separation between the two ventricles to ensure efficient blood flow. The other choices, 'Sputum' and 'Separator,' are incorrect as they do not refer to the anatomic structure in the heart that serves this specific function. 'Sputum' is a term used to describe phlegm or mucus, not an anatomical structure, and 'Separator' is a generic term that does not specifically identify the cardiac structure mentioned in the question.

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