Nursing Elites

1. What does the medical term 'basophilia' refer to?

• A. An attachment of the epithelial cells of the skin to a basement membrane
• B. An overabundance of a particular white blood cell in the peripheral blood
• C. An underrepresentation of basophils on a blood smear
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'An overabundance of a particular white blood cell in the peripheral blood.' Basophilia specifically indicates an increased number of basophils in the peripheral blood. It can be observed in conditions like leukemia and certain allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect as it describes something unrelated to basophilia. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a decrease in basophils, which is opposite to the actual meaning of basophilia. Choice D is also incorrect as basophilia does have a defined medical significance.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to perform a physical assessment. Which statement is true about the inspection phase of the physical assessment?

• A. Usually yields little information
• B. Takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information
• C. May be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner
• D. Requires a thorough examination of the patient's body before proceeding with palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the inspection phase of a physical assessment, it is essential to take time as it can reveal a significant amount of information. Initially, it may feel uncomfortable for the examiner to focus solely on observing the patient without immediate action. Rushing through inspection is not recommended as it can lead to missing important cues. Train yourself to be thorough during inspection by observing carefully and taking the time needed to gather essential data. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because inspection typically provides valuable information, may feel uncomfortable at first but is necessary for a comprehensive assessment, and does not involve a quick glance but requires a focused and detailed observation.

3. What is the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance, as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well?"? The patient will:

• A. demonstrate improved social skills
• B. express a desire to interact with others
• C. become more independent in decision-making
• D. select and participate in one group activity per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct outcome for the patient with impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance is to select and participate in one group activity per day. This outcome focuses on increasing social involvement, which aligns with addressing the nursing diagnosis. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others, so the goal is to facilitate actual participation in social activities. Becoming more independent in decision-making and demonstrating improved social skills are not directly related to the specific nursing diagnosis provided. Additionally, the outcomes must be measurable, making choices A and C less appropriate as they lack specificity and measurability.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?

• A. Carefully cleaning the wall-mounted blood pressure device before using it.
• B. Donning latex gloves outside the room to limit powder dispersal.
• C. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
• D. Placing the patient in a semi-private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.

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