Nursing Elites

1. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.

• A. prevent it
• B. restrain the patient
• C. medicate the patient
• D. isolate the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.

2. While communicating with a client, the nurse determines that the client has realized the harmful effects of alcohol consumption and plans to stop drinking within 6 months. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of change would the nurse correlate the client's behavior with?

• A. Action
• B. Preparation
• C. Maintenance
• D. Contemplation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The transtheoretical model of change defines changing patterns in individuals across five stages based on their readiness to change. The stages are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In the contemplation stage, the client acknowledges the benefits of change and considers making the change within the next 6 months. This aligns with the client's realization of the harmful effects of alcohol consumption and intent to stop drinking within 6 months. The action stage involves actively making changes, the preparation stage includes goal-setting with an intention to change within 60 days, and the maintenance stage focuses on sustaining changed behavior for at least 6 months and taking preventive measures to avoid relapse. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's behavior aligns with the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of change.

3. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
• B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
• C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
• D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

4. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is beneficial in reducing contractures around joints, maintaining joint mobility, and preventing stiffness in immobile clients. This intervention helps preserve muscle strength and joint function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because: Option B suggesting decreasing fluid intake to prevent diarrhea is not relevant to preventing complications of immobility and could lead to dehydration; Option C, massaging the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence, is not a recommended practice as massage can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolism; Option D, turning the client from side to back every shift, is not sufficient as it does not address the need for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in immobile clients.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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