Nursing Elites

1. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.

• A. prevent it
• B. restrain the patient
• C. medicate the patient
• D. isolate the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.

2. When assessing an older adult, which vital sign changes would the nurse recognize as occurring with aging?

• A. Increase in pulse rate
• B. Widened pulse pressure
• C. Increase in body temperature
• D. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing an older adult, the nurse should be aware that with aging, systolic blood pressure tends to increase, resulting in widened pulse pressure. While in many older individuals both systolic and diastolic pressures increase, the pulse rate and body temperature typically do not increase with aging. Therefore, the correct answer is widened pulse pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because pulse rate does not necessarily increase with age, body temperature generally remains stable, and diastolic blood pressure may increase instead of decreasing in many older adults.

3. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

4. Which nurse statement defines boundaries in the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship when talking to a depressed client who has just been admitted to the psychiatric unit?

• A. ''Tell me about the relationship that you have with your mother and father.''
• B. ''Hello! I'm Nurse Andrea. I'll introduce you around and help you settle in.''
• C. ''What is the main thing that you would like to work on during therapy?'
• D. ''I understand that you have been depressed. What can you tell me about that?'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship, setting boundaries involves establishing the nurse's role and responsibilities while maintaining a professional distance. Option B demonstrates a clear boundary by introducing the nurse and offering assistance with settling in, which is appropriate for the initial phase of building rapport with the client. Choices A, C, and D delve into personal or therapeutic topics that are more suitable for the working phase of the relationship when the client's goals and problems are being addressed. Asking about the client's family relationships (Choice A), therapy focus (Choice C), or delving into the client's depression (Choice D) would be more relevant in later stages of the therapeutic process, once trust and rapport have been established during the orientation phase.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

• A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
• B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
• C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
• D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.

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