the best way for a nurse and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to
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NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.

2. A client has just died, and their son states, 'She was the most wonderful mother. There was no one who was a better mother than she was. She was perfect.' Which stage of grief is this son experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The son is experiencing the idealization stage of grief. During this stage, individuals tend to idealize the deceased person and remember them in a highly positive light, overlooking any negative aspects. This idealization serves as a coping mechanism to deal with the loss. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of the loss. Choice B, Anger, is incorrect as it involves feelings of resentment and frustration. Choice D, Shock, is incorrect as shock is the initial reaction to the loss and is different from idealizing the deceased individual.

3. A college athlete sustained a complete transection of the spinal cord while practicing on a trampoline. The health care provider explained that return of function to the lower extremities is not likely. Two weeks later, the client verbalizes the need to practice for an upcoming tournament. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exhibiting denial.' Denial is a common defense mechanism when facing a serious health issue. The individual rejects the existence of the problem due to the overwhelming anxiety and emotional distress it causes. In this case, the athlete's desire to practice for an upcoming tournament despite being informed about the unlikely return of lower extremity function indicates denial of the severity of their condition. Choice B, 'Verbalizing a fantasy,' is incorrect as a fantasy involves creating imagined events to fulfill unconscious wishes, which is not evident here. Choice C, 'No longer able to adapt,' is incorrect because the client is actually demonstrating a maladaptive coping mechanism by denying the reality of their situation. Choice D, 'Motivated to recover mobility,' is incorrect as the client's goal of practicing for a tournament does not align with the realistic expectation of recovering mobility after a complete spinal cord transection.

4. A client admitted with a diagnosis of cervical cancer tells the nurse, 'I haven't had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear for more than 8 years. I probably wouldn't be in the hospital today if I'd had those tests more often.' Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response, ''You feel as though you've neglected your health,'' is appropriate as it indicates recognition of expressed feelings, encouraging verbalization. This response is nondirective and reflective. Choice A, asking the client why she waited so long, ignores the client's current emotional needs and may cut off communication. Choice C, stating that it is never too late to start taking care of her health, is judgmental as it implies that the client has been negligent. Choice D, although acknowledging the importance of Pap smears, fails to address the client's current emotional state and needs.

5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

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