the best way for a nurse and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.

2. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

3. A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.

4. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

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