Nursing Elites

1. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
• B. Embolic stroke
• C. Sexual abuse
• D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.

2. During a class on cultural practices, the nurse hears the term cultural taboo. Which statement illustrates the concept of a cultural taboo?

• A. Trying prayer before seeking medical help
• B. Believing that illness is a punishment of sin
• C. Refusing to accept blood products as part of treatment
• D. Stating that a child's birth defect is the result of the parents' sins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The concept of a cultural taboo involves practices that are forbidden or avoided within a particular culture. Refusing to accept blood products as part of treatment is a clear example of a cultural taboo, as some cultures or religions prohibit the use of blood products for medical purposes. This practice is deeply rooted in cultural beliefs and traditions. The other choices provided do not directly relate to cultural taboos. Trying prayer before seeking medical help, believing illness is a punishment of sin, and stating that a child's birth defect is the result of parents' sins are beliefs or actions based on religious or personal beliefs, but they do not specifically represent cultural taboos.

3. When measuring the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant, which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.
• B. Vital signs should be measured as frequently as in an adult.
• C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
• D. The nurse should first measure the infant's vital signs before performing a physical examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing vital signs in a 6-month-old infant, the correct order is to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. This sequence is important to avoid potential alterations in respiratory and pulse rates caused by factors like crying or discomfort. Measuring the temperature first, especially rectally, may lead to an increase in respiratory and pulse rates, which can skew the results. It is crucial to follow this specific order to obtain accurate baseline values. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Option B is incorrect as the frequency of measuring vital signs in infants differs based on individual needs rather than being consistently more frequent than in adults. Option C is not directly related to the correct sequence for measuring vital signs in infants. Option D is incorrect because the physical examination typically follows the assessment of vital signs in clinical practice.

4. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

5. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

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