Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?

• A. Vest restraints should be used because they are the least restrictive type.
• B. Restraints should be used for 48 hours in non-psychiatric patients.
• C. Restraints should be applied to prevent wandering behavior.
• D. Alternative measures must be attempted first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.

2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

3. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury.
• B. Place pressure on her brachial artery.
• C. Place pressure on her radial nerve.
• D. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate first aid procedure for a patient bleeding profusely from an injury near the wrist is to place pressure on her brachial artery. Applying pressure to the brachial pulse point will help slow down the bleeding. Placing a tourniquet on her arm above the injury is not recommended as it could potentially inhibit blood flow, leading to tissue necrosis. Pressing on the radial nerve or covering the bleeding area with wet towels are not effective in controlling bleeding and may not address the underlying cause.

4. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
• B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
• C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
• D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

5. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

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