Nursing Elites

1. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

2. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

• A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
• B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
• C. The infant likely has only one testis.
• D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.

3. Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?

• A. Give the patient a list of other oncologists
• B. Tell the family to report the doctor to the state quality board
• C. Notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy
• D. Give the patient hospice information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?

• A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
• B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
• C. This disease is highly contagious.
• D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.

5. A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?

• A. Constipation
• B. Polyuria
• C. Rash
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is a crucial early indication of lithium toxicity. It results from the drug's effect on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This is a significant symptom to monitor as it can indicate potential toxicity. Constipation, rash, and tinnitus are not typically associated with early indications of lithium toxicity. Constipation is more commonly seen as a side effect of some medications, while rash and tinnitus are not specific indicators of lithium toxicity.

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