according to the cdc people in which of the following age groups are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

2. A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.

3. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is beneficial in reducing contractures around joints, maintaining joint mobility, and preventing stiffness in immobile clients. This intervention helps preserve muscle strength and joint function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because: Option B suggesting decreasing fluid intake to prevent diarrhea is not relevant to preventing complications of immobility and could lead to dehydration; Option C, massaging the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence, is not a recommended practice as massage can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolism; Option D, turning the client from side to back every shift, is not sufficient as it does not address the need for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in immobile clients.

4. A client is receiving treatment for delusional behavior. He believes that his neighbor is purposefully poisoning his water system in an attempt to make him sick. Which of the following responses of the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client presents with delusional beliefs, the nurse should avoid arguing with the client and should accept the client's initial need to hold onto the delusions. By asking the client 'Why do you feel like your neighbor is trying to poison you?' the nurse encourages the client to express his beliefs further. This open-ended question allows the client to elaborate on his delusions without feeling judged. It helps build trust between the nurse and the client, which is crucial for therapeutic communication. This approach may eventually lead to the client being more receptive to exploring and addressing his delusions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A may come off as dismissive and does not address the client's underlying beliefs. Choice C is a distraction and does not address the client's concerns. Choice D is confrontational and dismissive of the client's beliefs, which can damage the therapeutic relationship.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.

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