according to the cdc people in which of the following age groups are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

2. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.

3. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.

4. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

5. A female adolescent has anorexia nervosa and is malnourished and severely underweight. Which statement indicates that she is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat" indicates that the adolescent is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior. This is because the behavior has garnered attention from her mother, providing a sense of power and control, which are considered secondary gains. The statement "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house" reflects a disturbed body perception and is not related to secondary gains. Getting straight A's in all subjects is an achievement but not a secondary gain related to anorexia nervosa. The hair falling out in clumps is a physical consequence of starvation, not a secondary gain.

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