NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.
3. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?
- A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
- B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
- C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
- D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.
4. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?
- A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
- B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
- C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
- D. Discuss reasons for the client's suspicions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.
5. The client finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay and keep talking to the client.
- B. Sit quietly in the client's room until the client leaves the bathroom.
- C. Allow the client to cry alone and leave the client in the bathroom.
- D. Talk to the client and attempt to find out why the client is crying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's first concern should be for the client's safety, so an immediate assessment of the client's situation is needed. Option D is the correct choice as it involves directly addressing the client's emotional state and attempting to understand the reason for the distress. In a vulnerable situation like this, the nurse should take the lead in assessing and communicating with the client. Option A is incorrect as it would delegate the responsibility to someone else when the nurse should be the one to initiate the assessment. Option B is inappropriate as it does not actively address the client's emotional needs or safety. Option C is also incorrect because leaving the client alone without further assessment could potentially endanger the client's well-being.
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