according to the cdc people in which of the following age groups are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.

3. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

4. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.

5. The client finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first concern should be for the client's safety, so an immediate assessment of the client's situation is needed. Option D is the correct choice as it involves directly addressing the client's emotional state and attempting to understand the reason for the distress. In a vulnerable situation like this, the nurse should take the lead in assessing and communicating with the client. Option A is incorrect as it would delegate the responsibility to someone else when the nurse should be the one to initiate the assessment. Option B is inappropriate as it does not actively address the client's emotional needs or safety. Option C is also incorrect because leaving the client alone without further assessment could potentially endanger the client's well-being.

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