Nursing Elites

1. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

2. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?

• A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
• B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
• C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
• D. Decrease the run speed to 50.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.

3. What is the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance, as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well?"? The patient will:

• A. demonstrate improved social skills
• B. express a desire to interact with others
• C. become more independent in decision-making
• D. select and participate in one group activity per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct outcome for the patient with impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance is to select and participate in one group activity per day. This outcome focuses on increasing social involvement, which aligns with addressing the nursing diagnosis. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others, so the goal is to facilitate actual participation in social activities. Becoming more independent in decision-making and demonstrating improved social skills are not directly related to the specific nursing diagnosis provided. Additionally, the outcomes must be measurable, making choices A and C less appropriate as they lack specificity and measurability.

4. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
• B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
• C. The client has a seizure
• D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

5. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

Similar Questions