NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Orthopnea
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.
2. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?
- A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
- B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
- C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
- D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.
3. As a charge nurse, what is your primary responsibility for a 50-year-old blind and deaf patient admitted to your floor?
- A. Inform others about the patient's deficits.
- B. Communicate patient safety concerns to your supervisor.
- C. Provide continuous updates to the patient about the social environment.
- D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. Ensuring patient safety is crucial to prevent medical errors and adverse outcomes. By creating a safe environment, the nurse can protect the patient from harm and promote well-being. Option A is incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring patient safety rather than highlighting deficits. Option B is not the primary responsibility in this scenario, as the immediate concern is the patient's safety. Option C is irrelevant and does not address the patient's primary needs, which are safety and security.
4. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?
- A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
- B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
- C. Should be firmly held against the person's skin to block out low-pitched sounds
- D. Should be lightly held against the person's skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.
5. What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Sigmoidoscopy
- C. Upper GI
- D. Cardiac catheterization
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access