Nursing Elites

1. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

2. A nurse is assisting a pregnant client who is having an amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates the correct teaching for this procedure?

• A. I'm going to help you lie lat on your back for this."
• B. Don't worry, I'm sure everything will be all right."
• C. I will need to help you remove your shirt for this procedure."
• D. Now that the procedure is inished, I will put a small bandage over the puncture site."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis is performed to draw amniotic luid from the sac around the fetus during pregnancy. It may be analyzed for certain disorders or complications associated with pregnancy. Following the procedure, the nurse should wash the client's abdomen and place a small bandage over the puncture site

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. Which method is most appropriate for managing moral distress in the workplace?

• A. Recognizing that life is unfair and nurses cannot meet every need of every client
• B. Declining to act when clients or visitors make requests that are not justifiable
• C. Developing a new policy that would address the problematic situation
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moral distress involves negative feelings or frustration toward situations that are deemed unfair, unethical, or that cause the nurse to feel helpless in their work. It can lead to nurse burnout when ongoing issues are not resolved. The most appropriate method for managing moral distress is to develop new policies that address the problematic situations. By creating policies, nurses can work towards changing current standards and reducing the number of situations that lead to moral distress. Choices A and B are incorrect because recognizing life's unfairness and not taking action on unjustifiable requests do not actively address the root causes of moral distress or work towards resolving the issues.

5. The nurse is providing disease prevention education to a 63-year-old woman with a negative family history of breast cancer. The nurse recommends the patient schedule mammograms with which frequency?

• A. Every 5 years
• B. Every 10 years
• C. Every other year
• D. Once a year

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mammograms, along with breast self-examinations and other routine tests, are key for the early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer. All major societies (WHO, ACS, USPSTF) recommend a screening mammogram every two years in women of this age at average risk of breast cancer. The recommended frequency may change if there are identified family history and significant risk factors. Choosing 'Once a year' is too frequent and not aligned with current guidelines. Opting for 'Every 5 years' or 'Every 10 years' intervals is not adequate for regular breast cancer screening and may increase the risk of cancer progression. Therefore, 'Every other year' is the most appropriate choice for this patient without a family history of breast cancer.

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