Nursing Elites

1. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

2. Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for:

• A. 10 years
• B. Forever
• C. Until the age of majority
• D. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Forever.' Maintaining patients' charts indefinitely ensures comprehensive legal protection by having all relevant information available in case of litigation or if patient history needs to be referenced in the future. Choice A, '10 years,' may not be sufficient to cover the entire period within which legal issues may arise. Choice C, 'Until the age of majority,' is not ideal as legal matters may extend beyond this age limit. Choice D, '2 years after the patient was last seen in the office,' is inadequate as legal actions can occur beyond this timeframe, necessitating the need for long-term retention of patient charts.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?

• A. Lithotomy position
• B. Prone position
• C. Dorsal recumbent position
• D. High Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.

4. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

• A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
• B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
• C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
• D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

5. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

Similar Questions