Nursing Elites

1. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

2. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?

• A. I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible.
• B. My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom.
• C. I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends.
• D. I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis, it is important for the infected individual to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Sleeping alone in a separate room, like the guest bedroom, is an effective measure. The other choices are not ideal: Choice A is incorrect because spending time outdoors is encouraged for ventilation; Choice C is incorrect as using public transportation increases the risk of transmission; Choice D is incorrect because keeping windows closed limits ventilation, which is necessary to reduce the concentration of infectious particles in the air.

3. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

5. Ruth is a 72-year-old patient who has been upset and crying all morning. When asked why she is upset, she turns toward the wall in silence. What collaborative process may be helpful in caring for this patient?

• A. Speak with the patient care technician
• B. Call the chaplain
• C. Call the social worker
• D. Call the patient's husband

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collaborating with the patient care technician is an appropriate approach in this scenario. Patient care technicians and nurses' aides often provide direct care to patients, developing a closer relationship with them. Patients may feel more comfortable sharing their feelings with these caregivers compared to other healthcare professionals. In this situation, Ruth's distress appears more emotional than spiritual, making it more suitable to speak with someone directly involved in her care. Calling the chaplain (Choice B) might not directly address Ruth's immediate emotional needs as it could focus more on spiritual support. Involving the social worker (Choice C) could help address underlying emotional or social issues, but speaking with the patient care technician is a more direct and immediate step to assess and provide initial support. Calling the patient's husband (Choice D) may not address Ruth's immediate emotional distress and may not be appropriate without understanding the root cause of her upset.

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