Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for teaching the child's parents about this procedure?

• A. The registered nurse will be performing the procedure
• B. The procedure takes approximately 1 ? hours.
• C. The nurse will draw out 250cc of blood and then immediately replace it with 250cc
• D. The infant will continue to receive phototherapy during the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: : An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes 5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a physician and will take approximately 1 � hours to complete.

2. When teaching a Vietnamese patient who has been treated for pneumonia and needs to complete her antibiotic regimen at home, what is an important cultural component to consider?

• A. Cupping will help to pull toxins from the body
• B. Coining will help to release the wind or bad energy from the body
• C. Once symptoms disappear there is no longer an illness
• D. Most households consist of at least 3 generations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Once symptoms disappear there is no longer an illness'. In Vietnamese culture, there is a belief that once symptoms go away, the illness is no longer present and does not require further treatment. This is crucial to understand when educating Vietnamese patients about completing their antibiotic regimen. Choices A and B (cupping and coining) are traditional Vietnamese healing practices that are not directly related to completing antibiotic therapy. Choice D, about households consisting of multiple generations, is not directly relevant to the completion of antibiotic treatment for pneumonia in this context.

3. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?

• A. Family history of heart disease
• B. Overweight
• C. Smoking
• D. Age

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.

4. Which behavior observed by the nurse indicates a suspicion that a depressed adolescent client may be suicidal?

• A. The adolescent gives away a DVD player and a cherished autographed picture of a performer.
• B. The adolescent runs out of group therapy, swearing at the group leader, and then goes to her room.
• C. The adolescent becomes angry while speaking on the phone and slams down the receiver.
• D. The adolescent gets angry with her roommate when the roommate borrows her clothes without asking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the adolescent gives away a DVD player and a cherished autographed picture of a performer. This behavior is concerning because a depressed suicidal client often gives away things of value as a way of saying goodbye and wanting to be remembered. Choices B, C, and D all involve anger and acting-out behaviors, which are common in adolescents but do not specifically indicate suicidal ideation. Running out of group therapy, swearing, and going to her room, becoming angry and slamming the phone receiver, or getting upset when her roommate borrows her clothes are not clear indications of suicidal thoughts.

5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

Similar Questions